Rahima Posted September 30, 2005 I later asked some of the locals why they were doing this. They mentioned that if your 7km (some said 12km) away from your home, then this can be taken as travelling (even if you dont leave your city). I was very skeptical, if anyone could please expand on this i would be greatful. Allahu aclum, but I too am skeptical about this. I don’t remember where I got this from, but I remember reading/being told that a city is not bound by distance rather what the people consider to be part of the city. For example, Melbourne has a border agreed upon and it surpasses the 7 or 12 km. Extremely restrictive. Going by this theory of kilometers it would mean that women require a mahram to go outside this 7/12 km border then. Bal ka tali sxb. Should be interesting. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Nur Posted September 30, 2005 Northner Distance that must covered for it to be defined as travel is not am exact science, there are a lot of definitions, my best definition is the following: Any travel away from place of dwelling that is known as travel in your culture, place or time. Because driving from one side of Los Angleles to the other could easily be 80 km, but it is all in a day at work. Likewise what used to be travel a century ago is no lobger travel today. Bashi bro. In Riba deals, money earned from Riba is haram, but there is a big question of what qualifies as money earned from Riba deal. If you pay interest is not as you receive interest, both are Haram, but when one recieves interest he has earned haram, while the one who paid interest has his principal halal although he dealt haram. Now, this tax offsetting the riba is a joke, i know of a guy who said he has two bank accounts, halal and haram accounts, when he goes for haram fun he uses the haram money, when he goes to pay sadaqah or he goes for Makkah , he uses halal money. These people are just adding insult to an injury. Safe Guy The best way to rectify or to dispose of haram earned wealth is the following: 1. Give it back to the owner 2. If not able, give it to a charity, you do not get an ajar for the money, the owner does, you get an ajar for repenting. Nur Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Rahima Posted September 30, 2005 Tooth paste contains some sugars and sweetners that are sensed by the taste buds, also, it contains fragrances such as mints and others, those two ingredients make Tooth paste MAKROOH, which is one degree between the permitted and te forbidden. Makrooh means strongly not recommended but it is not out right haraam. The fact that it is OK is because you are cleaning your teeth with it whch is Highly recommended. And because you do not swallow, for external use, it is halaal. But using clogate is begging trouble. So then brother how come it is that we can taste food when cooking without swallowing? Is that not like the toothpaste? I’ve heard of the Makrooh status of brushing with toothpaste but I’ve never had the chance for this query to be addressed. JZK. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Yonis Posted September 30, 2005 Rahima, that is a good question. Let me try to answer it for you. First of all, it is not necessary for any person to swallow something in order to find out its taste. It is with the front part of one's tongue that one finds out how something tastes. If a woman/man puts a small piece of her/his cooking in her/his mouth in order to feel its taste with her tongue, her/his fast remains valid. So, I believe using a tooth paste is same like this one. But if you consume, or swallow or if even a little of the actual toothpaste goes down your throat, even if indirectly by affecting the saliva, it would invalidate the fast. Walahu Aclam. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Rahima Posted September 30, 2005 Ok, so the next natural question then becomes how can indirect and thereby unintentional swallowing of the toothpaste lead to invalidation of ones fast? We know that if one eats unintentionally whilst fasting, their fast remains valid for it was unintentional. The same reasoning could be used here also, no? I can for example brush my teeth with toothpaste without intentionally swallowing any of it and even if i did it would be unintentional and hence my fast would remain valid. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Yonis Posted September 30, 2005 Of course, anything that you did not do intentionally or you forget would not invalidate your fast, but the problem of toothpaste is you already know it is hard to avoid when you using toothpaste and it goes into your throat without noticing it. So, it is better to be very careful and use a very small amount of it. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Alle-ubaahne Posted September 30, 2005 Rashid, The last time, I heard the culimaa saying that its Ok to brush your teeth with whatever Islamicaly acceptable during Ramadan, as a neccesary part of Islamic hygenity, but you must always use your discretion to make sure you refrain from anything that can invalidate your fasting. Especially, you have to very delligent in brushing your teeth with such known pastes with haraam ingredients. Find a better alternative, that I know exists, to maintain the cleanliness that you want. Also, avoid brushing the teeth hard lest the gum bleeds. There was a paper that the Imam of the local mosque told me to translate into English, which was discussing in details about the rulings or Axkaam of the fasting. I will surely try to find out where I placed, so that we can benefit from it in here. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Yonis Posted October 1, 2005 That is cool brother, May Allah bless you, bring it on. I hope we will all benefit from it! Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Nur Posted August 17, 2006 Nomad Moahamed Bro. Asked I actually have two more question regarding fasting and traveling. I will be travelling from Ontario to Alberta during ramadan. I know i don't have to fast on the day I have to travel (it can be made up later) but I wish to fast on that day. My question is: Do I have to discontinue my fasting on that day? Also when do I break my fast Ontario time or local Alberta time. Alberta is two hours behind ontario. mohamed Bismillah wa bihi nastaciin No, you dont have to discontinue if you find it easy to perform, however it is said that Allah appreciates that you accept perks he offers ( Rukhas) as much as he appreciates that you abstain from prohibitions, the choice is yours. As for breaking fast, just like yu would pray Maghrib prayers, you have to do it with the locals. Nur Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
N.O.R.F Posted August 18, 2006 This has nothing to do with ramadan. Can one perform congregational prayers with Shias? Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Nur Posted August 18, 2006 Northern bro. Please read this link, then let me know if you get an answer. http://www.somaliaonline.com/cgi-bin/ubb/ultimatebb.cgi?ubb=get_topic;f=3;t=001427 Nur Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Khalaf Posted August 19, 2006 Originally posted by Northerner: Can one perform congregational prayers with Shias? Simple answer, NO. Its ok to pray with shias in the masjid but not behind a shia Imam. And Allah knows best. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
N.O.R.F Posted August 19, 2006 ^^that what i thought but was surprised at someone who said it was permissable to me recently. The question came about as i've been observing Shias praying in local sunni mosques here. Thanks for the link Nur. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Khayr Posted August 19, 2006 Originally posted by Khalaf: quote:Originally posted by Northerner: Can one perform congregational prayers with Shias? Simple answer, NO. Its ok to pray with shias in the masjid but not behind a shia Imam. And Allah knows best. What is the proof that you can not pray behind someone that is Shia MUSLIM? If you are giving them the label that they are Shia MUSLIM (emphasize on the word MUSLIM), then you share similiar Pillars of Islam and the Shahadah. So Northerner, let me get this, It is ok for Shias to pray behind Sunnis but not for Sunnis to pray behind Shia? Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Khalaf Posted August 19, 2006 Khayr Shia teachings are deviance from the Sunnah of the Prophet peace be upon him….clear kufar and shirk….a follower of the Sunnah should not pray behind them since the Imam should be a follower of the Prophets Sunnah. The Nation of Islam call themselves Muslims….but they are Kufar and follow shirk….the name tag don’t matter but the creed. The religion is not difficult….anyone who has knowledge of Islam can tell their rituals are shirk…and are not followers of the Sunnah!! Khomeini’s Al-Hukumah Al-Islamiyyah Creed of Shia Allah Knows Best. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites