Jafarel. Posted August 26, 2005 Salaam to u all I came across this question in a maths text book. 'If a barber shaves for only those men that do not shave themselves, does he shave himself?' Students of discrete mathematics might know this. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
LANDER Posted August 26, 2005 ^ I ain't no mathematician but I can tell you there ain't no straight answers for that paradox, try drawing a conclusion and you will see any conclusion you muster can be prooven false. Now from a math stand point the best I can come up with are there are two set groups S (shave) and D (don't shave) add another varriable to that B (barber, the barber most people would think has to belong to one group or another, but if one were to try and prove either group as True, than that conclusion can easily be dismissed so maybe: U=union J= lets pretend this is an upside down "U", Interstect so the barber's role is the paradox in this story B= S(J)B so according to my assumption the only plausible mathematical answer is that he belongs to both groups, however that answer makes no logical sense. Knock yourselves out ppl Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
N.O.R.F Posted September 6, 2005 'If a barber shaves for only those men that do not shave themselves, does he shave himself?' The key word here is 'for'. When shaving 'for' someone as opposed to just plain "give me a shave" (you dont say "shave for me"), a grey area occurs. I can ask the barber to shave his own beard 'for' those that don't want to look at his scruffy face in the mirror when in the chair :confused: :confused: :confused: :confused: There answer is a probability of 1 in 2, a 50% chance that he shaves himself, equals If the baber is working in a team of barbers, then he is shaving 'for' those that do not shave themselvs (ie babers) and therefor does not shave himself but can then get another barber to give him a shave :confused: aarghh :mad: good night Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites