Khalaf Posted October 9, 2007 We know for example Islam ruled Spain for 700yrs, India for more then thousand years, Middle East, East Africa, after all these thousands of years one will still find churches, synagogues, and as in India majority of followers are hindu. Islamic history of respecting others is a glorious history. Islam ensures religious freedom for all people. “There should not be any compulsion in religion” (Al-Baqarah: 256). People should be free to practice their religion, but they should not force their religion on others. Similarly Islam allows freedom of expression, but people should not utter falsehood and lies. Islam teaches political freedom so that people choose their leaders by their own consent, and if the leaders are dishonest or incapable then people remove them from their office. Islam allows economic freedom. People should be free to earn and to own as much as they want but without indulging in fraud, deception, and cheating. source This is true, but if there was shariah law then all people muslims and non-muslim would have to abide by the islamic religious law as we abide by the states law here for example. Would this not be forcing a religious code on others who don't follow or believe in the doctrine of the said religion, thus defeats the meaning of freedom? Why or why not? And what is the position of non-muslim minorities in an Islamic state? Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
N.O.R.F Posted October 9, 2007 ^^A non-muslin in a Muslim country is considered is a Dhimmi (look it up) read this Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Khalaf Posted October 13, 2007 ^^thnks sxb...and i know....i ask questions sometimes that i alreadly know the answer to....to see answers of others who maybe more articulate then me to forumalte responses to the questions by non-muslims. The article didn't answer: Would this not be forcing a religious code on others who don't follow or believe in the doctrine of the said religion, thus defeats the meaning of freedom? Ie: A non-muslim women (minority in a muslim majority country) doesn't want to wear hijab, would she have this freedom in an islamic state? As muslim women have freedom to wear hijab in united states a non-muslim country for example? Fair question, i believe. Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
N.O.R.F Posted October 14, 2007 ^^Saxib. When a non-Muslim lives in a Muslim country they accept the following: a) Its a Muslim country b) They are entitled to practice their religion in peace (there may be differences of opinion in some countries) We can use to examples here. 1) Saudi Arabia and 2) UAE Both are Sunni Muslim states but are different when it comes to accommodating non-Muslims. The KSA requires women to cover up whilst its a 'choice' in the UAE. Who is wrong and who is right? Or are they both wrong and right at the same time? Will contribute more when time permits. Eid Mubarak Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
rudy-Diiriye Posted October 14, 2007 i aint worried about that! i am worried more about african muslims and they treated in so called muslim arabian countries like saudi arabia. i mean how can u throw out a women who just gave birth just cuz shes illegal...! u know that never happens in christian cities like la? tell me why?? where is humanity here? Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
